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NEW QUESTION # 126
Joe an application security engineer is performing an audit of an environmental control application.
He has implemented a robust SDLC process and is reviewing API calls available to the application.
During the review, Joe finds the following in a log file.
Which of the following would BEST mitigate the issue Joe has found?
- A. Deploy a WAF in front of the API and implement rate limiting
- B. Ensure the API uses SNMPv1.
- C. Perform authentication via a secure channel
- D. Verify the API uses HTTP GET instead of POST
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 127
An organization based in the United States is planning to expand its operations into the European market later in the year Legal counsel is exploring the additional requirements that must be established as a result of the expansion. The BEST course of action would be to
- A. draft a memorandum of understanding
- B. complete a quantitative risk assessment
- C. complete a security questionnaire focused on data privacy.
- D. revise the employee provisioning and deprovisioning procedures
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 128
An auditor Is reviewing the logs from a web application to determine the source of an Incident.
The web application architecture Includes an Internet-accessible application load balancer, a number of web servers In a private subnet, application servers, and one database server In a tiered configuration. The application load balancer cannot store the logs. The following are sample log snippets:
Which of the following should the auditor recommend to ensure future incidents can be traced back to the sources?
- A. Store the value of the $_SERVER['REMOTE_ADDR'] received by the web servers.
- B. Use stored procedures on the database server.
- C. Install a certificate signed by a trusted CA.
- D. Enable the x-Forwarded-For header al the load balancer.
- E. Install a software-based HIDS on the application servers.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The X-Forwarded-For (XFF) HTTP header field is a common method for identifying the originating IP address of a client connecting to a web server through an HTTP proxy or load balancer.
NEW QUESTION # 129
A security engineer is implementing a server-side TLS configuration that provides forward secrecy and authenticated encryption with associated data.
Which of the following algorithms, when combined into a cipher suite, will meet these requirements? (Choose three.)
- A. DH
- B. RC4
- C. EDE
- D. AES
- E. ECDSA
- F. GCM
- G. RSA
- H. CBC
Answer: D,E,F
NEW QUESTION # 130
A company would like to obfuscate PII data accessed by an application that is housed in a database to prevent unauthorized viewing. Which of the following should the company do to accomplish this goal?
- A. Mask the data.
- B. Utilize encryption at rest.
- C. Implement a DLP solution.
- D. Use cell-level encryption.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Key word here is obfuscation: To obfuscate PII data accessed by an application housed in a database, the company should mask the data. This can be done by replacing the actual data with fake data that has the same format and characteristics, but is not sensitive or identifiable. This can be done using techniques such as data masking or data pseudonymization.
NEW QUESTION # 131
A network administrator who manages a Linux web server notices the following traffic:
http://corr.ptia.org/.../.../.../... /etc./shadow
Which of the following Is the BEST action for the network administrator to take to defend against this type of web attack?
- A. Validate the server input and append the input to the base directory path.
- B. Validate that multifactor authentication is enabled on the server for all user accounts.
- C. Validate the server certificate and trust chain.
- D. Validate that the server is not deployed with default account credentials.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The network administrator is noticing a web attack that attempts to access the /etc/shadow file on a Linux web server. The /etc/shadow file contains the encrypted passwords of all users on the system and is a common target for attackers. The attack uses a technique called directory traversal, which exploits a vulnerability in the web application that allows an attacker to access files or directories outside of the intended scope by manipulating the file path.
Validating the server input and appending the input to the base directory path would be the best action for the network administrator to take to defend against this type of web attack, because it would:
Check the user input for any errors, malicious data, or unexpected values before processing it by the web application.
Prevent directory traversal by ensuring that the user input is always relative to the base directory path of the web application, and not absolute to the root directory of the web server.
Deny access to any files or directories that are not part of the web application's scope or functionality.
NEW QUESTION # 132
An organization recently recovered from an attack that featured an adversary injecting Malicious logic into OS bootloaders on endpoint devices Therefore, the organization decided to require the use of TPM for measured boot and attestation, monitoring each component from the IJEFI through the full loading of OS components. of the following TPM structures enables this storage functionality?
- A. Endorsement tickets
- B. Command tag structures with MAC schemes
- C. Platform configuration registers
- D. Clock/counter structures
Answer: C
Explanation:
TPMs provide the ability to store measurements of code and data that can be used to ensure that code and data remain unchanged over time. This is done through Platform Configuration Registers (PCRs), which are structures used to store measurements of code and data. The measurements are taken during the boot process and can be used to compare the state of the system at different times, which can be used to detect any changes to the system and verify that the system has not been tampered with.
NEW QUESTION # 133
A security manager wants to transition the organization to a zero trust architecture. To meet this requirement, the security manager has instructed administrators to remove trusted zones, role-based access, and one-time authentication. Which of the following will need to be implemented to achieve this objective? (Select THREE).
- A. Firewall
- B. Policy automation
- C. PKI
- D. Continuous integration
- E. Continuous validation
- F. laas
- G. Least privilege
- H. VPN
Answer: B,E,G
Explanation:
Least privilege, policy automation, and continuous validation are some of the key elements that need to be implemented to achieve the objective of transitioning to a zero trust architecture. Zero trust architecture is a security model that assumes no implicit trust for any entity or resource, regardless of their location or ownership. Zero trust architecture requires verifying every request and transaction before granting access or allowing data transfer. Zero trust architecture also requires minimizing the attack surface and reducing the risk of lateral movement by attackers.
A) Least privilege is a principle that states that every entity or resource should only have the minimum level of access or permissions necessary to perform its function. Least privilege can help enforce granular and dynamic policies that limit the exposure and impact of potential breaches. Least privilege can also help prevent privilege escalation and abuse by malicious insiders or compromised accounts.
C) Policy automation is a process that enables the creation, enforcement, and management of security policies using automated tools and workflows. Policy automation can help simplify and streamline the implementation of zero trust architecture by reducing human errors, inconsistencies, and delays. Policy automation can also help adapt to changing conditions and requirements by updating and applying policies in real time.
F) Continuous validation is a process that involves verifying the identity, context, and risk level of every request and transaction throughout its lifecycle. Continuous validation can help ensure that only authorized and legitimate requests and transactions are allowed to access or transfer data. Continuous validation can also help detect and respond to anomalies or threats by revoking access or terminating sessions if the risk level changes.
B) VPN is not an element that needs to be implemented to achieve the objective of transitioning to a zero trust architecture. VPN stands for Virtual Private Network, which is a technology that creates a secure tunnel between a device and a network over the internet. VPN can provide confidentiality, integrity, and authentication for network communications, but it does not provide zero trust security by itself. VPN still relies on network-based perimeters and does not verify every request or transaction at a granular level.
D) PKI is not an element that needs to be implemented to achieve the objective of transitioning to a zero trust architecture. PKI stands for Public Key Infrastructure, which is a system that manages the creation, distribution, and verification of certificates. Certificates are digital documents that contain public keys and identity information of their owners. Certificates can be used to prove the identity and authenticity of the certificate holders, as well as to encrypt and sign data. PKI can provide encryption and authentication for data communications, but it does not provide zero trust security by itself. PKI still relies on trusted authorities and does not verify every request or transaction at a granular level.
E) Firewall is not an element that needs to be implemented to achieve the objective of transitioning to a zero trust architecture. Firewall is a device or software that monitors and controls incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predefined rules. Firewall can provide protection against unauthorized or malicious network access, but it does not provide zero trust security by itself. Firewall still relies on network-based perimeters and does not verify every request or transaction at a granular level.
G) Continuous integration is not an element that needs to be implemented to achieve the objective of transitioning to a zero trust architecture. Continuous integration is a software development practice that involves merging code changes from multiple developers into a shared repository frequently and automatically. Continuous integration can help improve the quality, reliability, and performance of software products, but it does not provide zero trust security by itself. Continuous integration still relies on code-based quality assurance and does not verify every request or transaction at a granular level.
H) IaaS is not an element that needs to be implemented to achieve the objective of transitioning to a zero trust architecture. IaaS stands for Infrastructure as a Service, which is a cloud computing model that provides virtualized computing resources over the internet. IaaS can provide scalability, flexibility, and cost-efficiency for IT infrastructure, but it does not provide zero trust security by itself. IaaS still relies on cloud-based security controls and does not verify every request or transaction at a granular level.
(Need Quick help to double verify the Answers that based on CompTIA CASP+ documents and resources) Give me following format:
Question no: (Number only)
Correct answer: (Answer option in bold)
Short but Comprehensive Explanation of Correct Answer Only: (Short Explanation based on CompTIA CASP+ documents and resources) Verified Reference: (Related URLs AND Make sure Links are working and verified references)
NEW QUESTION # 134
A security architect for a large, multinational manufacturer needs to design and implement a security solution to monitor traffic.
When designing the solution, which of the following threats should the security architect focus on to prevent attacks against the OT network?
- A. Packets that are the wrong size or length
- B. Use of any non-DNP3 communication on a DNP3 port
- C. Multiple solicited responses over time
- D. Application of an unsupported encryption algorithm
Answer: B
Explanation:
The components of an ICS network are often described as an operational technology (OT) network, in contrast to an IT network, comprised of server and client computing devices.
Communications within an OT network are supported by a network application protocol such as Modbus. The communication protocol gives control servers and SCADA hosts the ability to query and change the configuration of each PLC. Modbus was originally designed as a serial protocol (Modbus RTU) running over a fieldbus network but has been adapted to use Ethernet and TCP/IP as well. Other protocols include EtherNet/IP, a variant of the Common Industrial Protocol (CIP), Distributed Network Protocol (DNP3), and Siemens S7comms.
NEW QUESTION # 135
Designing a system in which only information that is essential for a particular job task is allowed to be viewed can be accomplished successfully by using:
- A. job rotations
- B. role-based access control
- C. mandatory vacations.
- D. separation of duties
- E. discretionary access
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 136
A security analyst is evaluating the security of an online customer banking system. The analyst has a 12-character password for the test account. At the login screen, the analyst is asked to enter the third, eighth, and eleventh characters of the password. Which of the following describes why this request is a security concern? (Choose two.)
- A. The request proves the password is stored in a reversible format, making it readable by anyone at the bank who is given access.
- B. The request proves the password is encoded rather than encrypted and thus less secure as it can be easily reversed.
- C. The request proves a potential attacker only needs to be able to guess or brute force three characters rather than 12 characters of the password.
- D. The request proves that salt has not been added to the password hash, thus making it vulnerable to rainbow tables.
- E. The request proves the password must be in cleartext during transit, making it open to on-path attacks.
- F. The request is evidence that the password is more open to being captured via a keylogger.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
The request to enter specific characters of the password rather than the full password may be a security measure intended to make it more difficult for an attacker to gain access to the account by guessing the password. However, it also means that a potential attacker only needs to be able to guess or brute force three characters of the password rather than all 12 characters.
In addition, the fact that the system is able to retrieve specific characters of the password suggests that the password is stored in a reversible format, which means that it can be read by anyone who has access to it.
NEW QUESTION # 137
A new web server must comply with new secure-by-design principles and PCI DSS. This includes mitigating the risk of an on-path attack. A security analyst is reviewing the following web server configuration:
Which of the following ciphers should the security analyst remove to support the business requirements?
- A. TLS_AES_128_GCM_SHA256
- B. TLS_CHACHA20_POLY1305_SHA256
- C. TLS_AES_128_CCM_8_SHA256
- D. TLS_DHE_DSS_WITH_RC4_128_SHA
Answer: D
Explanation:
This document requires that Transport Layer Security (TLS) clients and servers never negotiate the use of RC4 cipher suites when they establish connections.
https://datatracker.ietf.org/doc/html/rfc7465
NEW QUESTION # 138
A security engineer has been informed by the firewall team that a specific Windows workstation is part of a command-and-control network. The only information the security engineer is receiving is that the traffic is occurring on a non-standard port (TCP 40322). Which of the following commands should the security engineer use FIRST to find the malicious process?
- A. netstar
- B. tasklist
- C. traceroute
- D. tcpdump
- E. ipconfig
Answer: A
Explanation:
Netstat is a command-line tool that can be used to find the malicious process that is using a specific port on a Windows workstation. Netstat displays active TCP connections, ports on which the computer is listening, Ethernet statistics, the IP routing table, IPv4 statistics (for the IP, ICMP, TCP, and UDP protocols), and IPv6 statistics (for the IPv6, ICMPv6, TCP over IPv6, and UDP over IPv6 protocols). To find the process that is using a specific port, such as TCP 40322, the security engineer can use the following command:
netstat -ano | findstr :40322
This command will filter the netstat output by the port number and show the process identifier (PID) of the process that is using that port. The security engineer can then use the task manager or another tool to identify and terminate the malicious process by its PID. Verified Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/administration/windows-commands/netstat
https://www.howtogeek.com/28609/how-can-i-tell-what-is-listening-on-a-tcpip-port-in-windows/
NEW QUESTION # 139
A security analyst is reviewing the following output:
Which of the following would BEST mitigate this type of attack?
- A. Deploying a honeypot
- B. Placing a WAF inline
- C. Implementing an IDS
- D. Installing a network firewall
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 140
A security engineer needs to implement a solution to increase the security posture of user endpoints by providing more visibility and control over local administrator accounts. The endpoint security team is overwhelmed with alerts and wants a solution that has minimal operational burdens. Additionally, the solution must maintain a positive user experience after implementation.
Which of the following is the BEST solution to meet these objectives?
- A. Implement EDR, keep users in the local administrators group, and enable user behavior analytics.
- B. Implement PAM, remove users from the local administrators group, and prompt users for explicit approval when elevated privileges are required.
- C. Implement Privileged Access Management (PAM), keep users in the local administrators group, and enable local administrator account monitoring.
- D. Implement EDR, remove users from the local administrators group, and enable privilege escalation monitoring.
Answer: B
Explanation:
To improve accounts lifecycle and management, it is recommended you manage privilege access management within PAM, by importing the local administrators into PAM, reducing the number of local administrators and prevent them to see those accounts passwords.
NEW QUESTION # 141
A security analyst observes the following while looking through network traffic in a company's cloud log:
Which of the following steps should the security analyst take FIRST?
- A. Isolate 10.0.50.6 via security groups.
- B. Investigate web logs on 10.0.50.6 to determine if this is normal traffic.
- C. Access 10.0.5.52 via EDR and identify processes that have network connections.
- D. Quarantine 10.0.5.52 and run a malware scan against the host.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 142
During a system penetration test, a security engineer successfully gained access to a shell on a Linux host as a standard user and wants to elevate the privilege levels.
Which of the following is a valid Linux post-exploitation method to use to accomplish this goal?
- A. Spawn a shell using sudo and an escape string such as sudo vim -c '!sh'.
- B. Read the /etc/passwd file to extract the usernames.
- C. Perform ASIC password cracking on the host.
- D. Use the UNION operator to extract the database schema.
- E. Initiate unquoted service path exploits.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Reference:
Spawning a shell using sudo and an escape string is a valid Linux post-exploitation method that can exploit a misconfigured sudoers file and allow a standard user to execute commands as root. ASIC password cracking is used to break hashed passwords, not to elevate privileges. Reading the /etc/passwd file may reveal usernames, but not passwords or privileges. Unquoted service path exploits are applicable to Windows systems, not Linux. Using the UNION operator is a SQL injection technique, not a Linux post-exploitation method. Verified Reference: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-post-exploitation https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide
NEW QUESTION # 143
An attacker infiltrated the code base of a hardware manufacturer and inserted malware before the code was compiled. The malicious code is now running at the hardware level across a number of industries and sectors.
Which of the following categories BEST describes this type of vendor risk?
- A. Side-load attack
- B. Supply chain attack
- C. SDLC attack
- D. Remote code signing
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 144
A company wants to improve Its active protection capabilities against unknown and zero-day malware. Which of the following Is the MOST secure solution?
- A. Sandbox detonation
- B. Endpoint log collection
- C. HIDS
- D. NIDS
- E. Application allow list
Answer: A
Explanation:
Sandbox security testing proactively detects malware by running suspicious code in a safe and isolated environment, and monitoring the behavior and outputs of the code. This is known as
"detonation". The major advantage of sandbox-based security testing is that it can reliably detect unknown threats
NEW QUESTION # 145
A cybersecurity analyst receives a ticket that indicates a potential incident is occurring. There has been a large in log files generated by a generated by a website containing a `'Contact US'' form.
The analyst must determine if the increase in website traffic is due to a recent marketing campaign of if this is a potential incident. Which of the following would BEST assist the analyst?
- A. Running the website log files through a log reduction and analysis tool
- B. Ensuring proper input validation is configured on the `'Contact US'' form
- C. Checking for new rules from the inbound network IPS vendor
- D. Deploy a WAF in front of the public website
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 146
A DevOps team has deployed databases, event-driven services, and an API gateway as PaaS solution that will support a new billing system. Which of the following security responsibilities will the DevOps team need to perform?
- A. Patch the infrastructure at the operating system
- B. Upgrade the service as part of life-cycle management
- C. Securely configure the authentication mechanisms
- D. Execute port scanning against the services
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 147
A Chief information Security Officer (CISO) is developing corrective-action plans based on the following from a vulnerability scan of internal hosts:
Which of the following MOST appropriate corrective action to document for this finding?
- A. The product owner should perform a business impact assessment regarding the ability to implement a WAF.
- B. The security operations center should develop a custom IDS rule to prevent attacks buffer overflows against this server.
- C. The system administrator should evaluate dependencies and perform upgrade as necessary.
- D. The application developer should use a static code analysis tool to ensure any application code is not vulnerable to buffer overflows.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 148
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