ASCP ASCP-MLT Practice Exam - 562 Unique Questions
Latest Questions ASCP-MLT Guide to Prepare Free Practice Tests
NEW QUESTION 218
No HLA matching is performed for corneal tissue transplants as the cornea occupies a privileged site not usually seen by the immune system. This term has been coined "immune privileged".
Corneal tissue may be transplanted successfully from one patient to another because:
- A. The cornea is non-antigenic
- B. The cornea occupies a privileged site not usually seen by the immune system
- C. Corneal antigens do not activate T cells
- D. The cornea has the same DNA in everyone.
- E. Anti-corneal antibodies are easily suppressed
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 219
Allergen-specific IgE, synthesized in response to allergens, becomes fixed to receptors on cellular membranes, especially those of basophils. If these receptor-bound IgE molecules are aggregated on re-exposure to specific allergen, both mast cells and basophils produce mediators that result in the allergic response. IgE-antigen interaction at the cell surface causes degranulation of cells and release of substances including: histamine, SRS-A, platelet activator, a kallikrein, and an eosinophil chemotactic factor. Basophils are the principal cells that bind IgE antibody while their number of receptor sites is proportional to serum IgE levels. Eosinophils are drawn to the site by the basophil chemotaxis mechanism, but are not the main cell which binds the IgE antibody.
Immunology
The mediator cells that bind MOST to IgE antibodies are:
- A. Polymorphonuclear neutrophils
- B. Macrophages
- C. Basophils
- D. Eosinophils
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 220
Hemoglobin H is a tetramer made of four beta globin chains. Hemoglobin H occurs when there is very limited alpha chain availability used to make normal hemoglobin A. Hemoglobin H forms in those affected with alpha thalassemia major as well as in people with the combination of two-gene deletion alpha thalassemia and hemoglobin Constant Spring.
Hematology
Which of the following combination of globin chains comprise Hemoglobin H?
- A. 2 alpha, 2 beta
- B. 4 alpha chains
- C. 4 beta chains
- D. 2 alpha, 2 gamma
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 221
Calculation:
Cells Counted (in this case the average of both sides) X dilution factor (in this case 100) / # of squares counted (in this case 9) X area of each square (1mm2) X 0.1mm (depth factor) So, in this problem:
158 x 100 / 9 x 1 x 0.1mm = 17555.55/mm3 (can be converted to 17.5 x 109/L*)
*There are 1,000,000 mm3 in a liter (L). So 17555.55 X 1,000,000 = 17.5 x 109/L A manual white blood cell count was performed by the hematology technologist. The cell counts for both sides were 152 and 164 respectively. All nine large squares were counted on each side. The dilution for this kit was pre-measured at 1:100. What should the technologist report as the white cell count?
- A. 17.5 x 10^9/L
- B. 177.5 x 10^9/L
- C. 1.75 x 10^9/L
- D. 175 x 10^9/L
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 222
Atherosclerosis is a hardening of an artery specifically due to the build up of plaque. The risk to patients with significant atherosclerosis is that eventually a narrowing of the artery (stenosis) can cause a reduction in oxygen delivery to tissues and plaque rupture can lead to an acute coronary event.
Atherosclerosis is a hardening of an artery specifically due to which of the following?
- A. Build up of plaque
- B. Hypercalcemia
- C. Aggregation of platelets
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 223
Stuart Prower factor, or factor X, would cause abnormal PT, aPTT, and dRVVT test results as factor X is part of the common coagulation pathway and therefore measured in both the PT and aPTT test. In the dRVVT test, factor X is directly activated in the test principle; therefore an abnormal result would be expected in this test as well if there was a deficiency in factor X.
What tests will be abnormal in a patient with Stuart-Prower Factor deficiency?
- A. Russel Viper Venom Test (dRVVT)
- B. Prothrombin Time (PT)
- C. a & b
- D. a & b & c
- E. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (APTT)
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 224
The structures involved in the production of semen include the prostate, the seminal vesicles, and the bulbourethral gland, along with the testes and epididymis.
Semen is produced as a combination of secretions from the different regions of the male reproductive tract.
Each fraction differs in chemical composition and function.
Spermatozoa are produced in the testes. They mature in the epididymis. The testes also produce testosterone and inhibin.
Fluid from the seminal vesicles accounts for approximately 70% of semen volume. The seminal vesicles are the source of fructose in semen. Fructose is used by the spermatozoa as an energy source.
The prostate gland supplies about 20% of the volume of semen. Its fluids include acid phosphatase and proteolytic enzymes that lead to coagulation and subsequent liquefaction of semen. The prostate also contains most of the IgA found in semen.
The bulbourethral gland produces mucoproteins that make up about 5% of the volume of semen.
The pituitary gland is not directly involved in the production of semen; instead hormones are released which stimulate the production of sperm. The urethra is not involved in the production of semen.
Which of the following are directly involved in the production of semen?
- A. Urethra
- B. Bulbourethral gland
- C. Pituitary gland
- D. Prostate
- E. Seminal vesicles
Answer: B,D,E
NEW QUESTION 225
Laboratories performing which of the following types of tests need to be enrolled in a CLIA-approved proficiency testing program?
- A. Waived
- B. both moderately and highly complex
- C. Highly complex
- D. Moderately complex
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 226
The laboratory is under the direction of a:
- A. pharmacist
- B. medical assistant
- C. pathologist
- D. phlebotomist
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 227
Angiotensin is an oligopeptide in the blood that causes vasoconstriction, increased blood pressure, and release of aldosterone from the adrenals.
A major action of angiotensin II is:
- A. Decreased adrenal secretion of aldosterone
- B. Increased vasoconstriction
- C. Increased pituitary secretion of petressin
- D. Increased parathormone secretion by the parathyroid
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 228
First, the RBC indices must be calculated. The MCV ((Hct/RBC) x 10) = 71 fL. Since the reference range for the MCV is 80-100 fL, this anemia would be classified as microcytic. The MCH ((Hgb/RBC) x 10) = 19.3 pg.
Since the reference range for the MCH is 27-33 pg, this would be considered hypochromic. Finally, the MCHC ((Hgb/Hct) X 100) = 27%. Since the normal range for the MCHC is 33%-36%, this would indicate hypochromia which correlates with the MCH findings. The correct answer is therefore microcytic, hypochromic anemia.
A patient is admitted to the emergency room with lethargy and pallor. The CBC results are as follows:
RBC = 4.1 x 1012/L
Hemoglobin = 7.9 g/cL
Hematocrit = 29%
How would you classify this anemia?
- A. microcytic, hyperchromic
- B. normocytic, normochromic
- C. microcytic, hypochromic
- D. macrocytic, normochromic
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 229
MCH is the average weight of hemoglobin in the average red blood cell. The value is expressed in picograms (10-12 grams).
Hematology
Hemoglobin (g/100ml) x 10 / RBC count (millions/mm3) is the formula for calculating:
- A. MCV
- B. RDW
- C. MCH
- D. MCHC
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 230
Lipids tend to form a "maltese cross" pattern when viewed in polarized light, which helps to differentiate them from other urine microscopic components.
Substances found in urinary sediment that are more easily distinguished by use of polarized microscope are:
- A. Casts
- B. WBC
- C. RBC
- D. Lipids
- E. Crystals
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 231
Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa is integral in the process of platelet aggregation as well as clot retraction.
A defective clot retraction might be caused by which one of these?
- A. Lack of or defect of platelet receptor Ilb/IIIa
- B. Absence or defect of von Willebrand's factor
- C. Insufficient storage of ADP in platelet granules
- D. Lack of or defect of platelet receptor glycoprotein Ib
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 232
Provide the equivalent measurement for 1000 milligrams.
Question options:
- A. 1 gram
- B. 5 grams
- C. 1 microgram
- D. 100 microns
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 233
Failure to tightly seal specimens for sweat electrolytes during collection and transport will cause:
- A. decreased values due to exposure to light
- B. decreased values due to exposure to air
- C. increased values due to evaporation
- D. increased values due to cellular contamination
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 234
Which of the following statements applies to the venipuncture procedure?
- A. selecting and preparing the puncture site is part of the procedure
- B. all of the above
- C. Standard Precautions must be observed
- D. the procedure includes preparation of the patient
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 235
Anything that can cause significant turbidity in a blood sample, such as high leukocyte count or lipemia can potentially interfere with the accuracy of a spectrophotometric hemoglobin assay.
Hematology
Which of the following may interfere with the accurate measurement of hemoglobin:
- A. Heparin
- B. Leukocytosis and lipemia
- C. EDTA
- D. Leukocytosis
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 236
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