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NEW QUESTION # 39
Which of the following is MOST important to verify when reviewing the effectiveness of an organization's identity management program?
- A. Processes are centralized and standardized.
- B. Processes are aligned with industry best practices.
- C. Processes are approved by the process owner.
- D. Processes are updated and documented annually.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The MOST important thing to verify when reviewing the effectiveness of an organization's identity management program is whether the processes are aligned with industry best practices. Identity management is the process of managing the identities and access rights of users across an organization's systems and resources. Industry best practices provide guidelines and standards for how to implement identity management in a secure, efficient, and compliant manner.
NEW QUESTION # 40
Which of the following is an attack attribute of an advanced persistent threat (APT) that is designed to remove data from systems and networks?
- A. Kill chain modeling
- B. Adversarial threat event
- C. Infiltration attack vector
- D. Exfiltration attack vector
Answer: D
Explanation:
An example of an attack attribute of an advanced persistent threat (APT) that is designed to remove data from systems and networks is an exfiltration attack vector. An exfiltration attack vector is a method or channel that an APT uses to transfer data from a compromised system or network to an external location. Examples of exfiltration attack vectors include email, FTP, DNS, HTTP, or covert channels.
NEW QUESTION # 41
Which of the following backup procedure would only copy files that have changed since the last backup was made?
- A. Incremental backup
- B. Full backup
- C. Daily backup
- D. Differential backup
Answer: A
Explanation:
The backup procedure that would only copy files that have changed since the last backup was made is an incremental backup. This is because an incremental backup is a type of backup that only copies the files that have been created or modified since the previous backup, whether it was a full or an incremental backup. An incremental backup helps to reduce the backup time and storage space, as well as the recovery time, as only the changed files need to be restored. The other options are not backup procedures that would only copy files that have changed since the last backup was made, but rather different types of backup procedures that copy files based on different criteria, such as daily backup (B), differential backup C, or full backup (D).
NEW QUESTION # 42
Availability can be protected through the use of:
- A. access controls. We permissions, and encryption.
- B. logging, digital signatures, and write protection.
- C. redundancy, backups, and business continuity management
- D. user awareness training and related end-user training.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Availability can be protected through the use of redundancy, backups, and business continuity management.
This is because these measures help to ensure that systems, data, and services are accessible and functional at all times, even in the event of a disruption or disaster. The other options are not directly related to protecting availability, but rather focus on enhancing confidentiality (A), integrity C, or awareness (D).
NEW QUESTION # 43
The GREATEST advantage of using a common vulnerability scoring system is that it helps with:
- A. risk elimination.
- B. risk aggregation.
- C. risk prioritization.
- D. risk quantification
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The GREATEST advantage of using a common vulnerability scoring system is that it helps with risk prioritization. This is because a common vulnerability scoring system provides a standardized and consistent way of measuring and comparing the severity of vulnerabilities, based on their impact and exploitability. This allows organizations to prioritize the remediation of the most critical vulnerabilities and allocate resources accordingly. The other options are not as advantageous as using a common vulnerability scoring system, because they either involve aggregating (A), eliminating C, or quantifying (D) risk, which are not directly related to the scoring system.
NEW QUESTION # 44
The discovery of known dangerous artifacts on a network such as IP addresses or domain names helps to identify which of the following?
- A. System vulnerabilities
- B. Unauthorized access
- C. Data breach
- D. Indicator of compromise
Answer: D
Explanation:
The presence of known dangerous artifacts like malicious IP addresses or domain names on a network typically indicates that a security breach has occurred or is in progress. These artifacts are often recognized as indicators of compromise (IoCs), which are pieces of forensic data, such as system log entries or files, that identify potentially malicious activity on a system or network. Identifying IoCs is crucial for cybersecurity as it allows organizations to detect breaches quickly and respond to them promptly.
NEW QUESTION # 45
Which of the following is the BEST indication of mature third-party vendor risk management for an organization?
- A. The organization maintains vendor security assessment checklists.
- B. The third party maintains annual assessments of control effectiveness.
- C. The third party's security program Mows the organization s security program.
- D. The organization's security program follows the thud party's security program.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The BEST indication of mature third-party vendor risk management for an organization is that the organization maintains vendor security assessment checklists. This is because vendor security assessment checklists help the organization to evaluate and monitor the security posture and performance of their third-party vendors, based on predefined criteria and standards. Vendor security assessment checklists also help the organization to identify and mitigate any gaps or issues in the vendor's security controls or processes.
The other options are not as indicative of mature third-party vendor risk management for an organization, because they either involve following or mimicking the security program of either party without considering their own needs or risks (A, D), or relying on the vendor's self-assessment without independent verification or validation C.
NEW QUESTION # 46
In the context of network communications, what are the two types of attack vectors?
- A. Malware and phishing
- B. Insider and privilege misuse
- C. Physical theft and loss
- D. Ingress and egress
Answer: D
Explanation:
In the context of network communications, the two types of attack vectors are ingress and egress. Ingress refers to the unauthorized entry or access to a network, which can include various forms of cyberattacks aimed at penetrating network defenses. Egress, on the other hand, involves the unauthorized transmission of data out of a network, often as part of data exfiltration efforts by attackers1.
NEW QUESTION # 47
Which of the following is the GREATEST risk pertaining to sensitive data leakage when users set mobile devices to "always on" mode?
- A. A user's behavior pattern can be predicted.
- B. Authorization tokens could be exploited.
- C. Mobile connectivity could be severely weakened.
- D. An adversary can predict a user's login credentials.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The GREATEST risk pertaining to sensitive data leakage when users set mobile devices to "always on" mode is that authorization tokens could be exploited. Authorization tokens are pieces of data that are used to authenticate users and grant them access to certain resources or services. Authorization tokens are often stored on mobile devices to enable seamless and convenient access without requiring users to enter their credentials repeatedly. However, if users set their mobile devices to "always on" mode, they increase the risk of losing their devices or having them stolen by attackers. Attackers can then access the authorization tokens stored on the devices and use them to impersonate the users or access their sensitive data.
NEW QUESTION # 48
An insecure wireless connection may expose users to which of the following?
- A. Tailgating
- B. Distributed denial of service
- C. Eavesdropping
- D. Shoulder surfing
Answer: C
Explanation:
An insecure wireless connection, such as one that lacks encryption, can allow unauthorized individuals within range to intercept the data being transmitted. This interception is known as eavesdropping. It is a common security risk associated with wireless networks where attackers can capture sensitive information without being detected.
NEW QUESTION # 49
An information security procedure indicates a requirement to sandbox emails. What does this requirement mean?
- A. Provide a backup of emails in the event of a disaster
- B. isolate the emails and test for malicious content
- C. Guarantee rapid email delivery through firewalls.
- D. Ensure the emails are encrypted and provide nonrepudiation.
Answer: B
Explanation:
An information security procedure that indicates a requirement to sandbox emails means that the emails need to be isolated and tested for malicious content. This is because sandboxing is a technique that creates a virtual or isolated environment, where suspicious or untrusted emails can be executed or analyzed without affecting the rest of the system or network. Sandboxing helps to detect and prevent malware, phishing, or spam attacks that may be embedded in emails, and protect the users and the organization from potential harm. The other options are not what sandboxing emails means, but rather different concepts or techniques that are related to information security, such as encryption and nonrepudiation (A), backup and recovery (B), or firewall and delivery (D).
NEW QUESTION # 50
Which of the following is used to help identify the most appropriate controls to meet an organization's specific security requirements?
- A. Maturity model
- B. Risk assessment
- C. Contingency planning
- D. Security assessment
Answer: B
Explanation:
Risk assessment is a fundamental part of the cybersecurity framework and is used to identify, estimate, and prioritize risks to organizational operations, assets, individuals, other organizations, and the Nation, resulting from the operation and use of information systems. A risk assessment helps in understanding the potential impact of different security threats and the effectiveness of the controls in place, thereby guiding the selection of appropriate controls to reduce risk to an acceptable level.
NEW QUESTION # 51
Which of the following describes Secure Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTPS)?
- A. HTTP with an encrypted session via MD5 or RC4 protocols
- B. HTTP protected by asymmetric encryption
- C. HTTP with an encrypted session via Transport Layer Security
- D. HTTP protected by symmetric encryption
Answer: C
Explanation:
HTTPS, or Secure Hypertext Transfer Protocol, is an extension of HTTP that is protected by encryption via Transport Layer Security (TLS). This protocol ensures secure communication over a computer network by encrypting the data exchanged between a web server and a web browser, thereby protecting the integrity and confidentiality of the transmitted data.
Reference = While I cannot provide direct references from the Cybersecurity Audit Manual, the definition and workings of HTTPS are well-established in cybersecurity resources. HTTPS uses TLS (formerly SSL) to secure the data transfer, which is a fundamental concept covered in various cybersecurity literature, including ISACA's materials123. For detailed information, please refer to the official ISACA resources and study guides.
NEW QUESTION # 52
Using digital evidence to provide validation that an attack has actually occurred is an example of;
- A. data acquisition.
- B. computer forensic
- C. extraction.
- D. identification.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Using digital evidence to provide validation that an attack has actually occurred is an example of computer forensics. This is because computer forensics is a discipline that involves the identification, preservation, analysis, and presentation of digital evidence from various sources, such as computers, networks, mobile devices, etc., to support investigations of cyber incidents or crimes. Computer forensics helps to provide validation that an attack has actually occurred, by examining the digital traces or artifacts left by the attackers on the compromised systems or devices, and by reconstructing the sequence and timeline of events that led to the attack. The other options are not examples of using digital evidence to provide validation that an attack has actually occurred, but rather different techniques or processes that are related to computer forensics, such as extraction (B), identification C, or data acquisition (D).
NEW QUESTION # 53
Which of the following is EASIEST for a malicious attacker to detect?
- A. Susceptibility to reverse engineering
- B. Insecure storage of sensitive data
- C. Use of insufficient cryptography
- D. Ability to tamper with mobile code
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The EASIEST thing for a malicious attacker to detect is the susceptibility to reverse engineering. Reverse engineering is the process of analyzing the code or functionality of an application to understand its structure, logic, or design. Reverse engineering can be used by attackers to discover vulnerabilities, bypass security mechanisms, or modify the application's behavior. Mobile applications are often susceptible to reverse engineering because they are distributed in binary form and can be easily decompiled or disassembled.
NEW QUESTION # 54
What is the FIRST activity associated with a successful cyber attack?
- A. Maintaining a presence
- B. Creating attack tools
- C. Reconnaissance
- D. Exploitation
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The FIRST activity associated with a successful cyber attack is reconnaissance. This is because reconnaissance is a phase of the cyber attack lifecycle that involves gathering information about the target organization or system, such as its network topology, IP addresses, open ports, services, vulnerabilities, etc. Reconnaissance helps to identify potential entry points and weaknesses that can be exploited by the attackers in later phases of the attack. The other options are not the first activity associated with a successful cyber attack, but rather follow after reconnaissance in the cyber attack lifecycle, such as exploitation (A), maintaining a presence C, or creating attack tools (D).
NEW QUESTION # 55
Which of the following features of continuous auditing provides the BEST level of assurance over traditional sampling?
- A. Voluminous dale can be analyzed at a high speed to show relevant patterns.
- B. Automated tools provide more reliability than an auditors personal judgment
- C. Reports can be generated more frequently for management.
- D. Continuous auditing tools are less complex for auditors to manage.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The feature of continuous auditing that provides the BEST level of assurance over traditional sampling is that voluminous data can be analyzed at a high speed to show relevant patterns. This is because continuous auditing is a technique that uses automated tools and processes to perform audit activities on a continuous or near-real-time basis, and to analyze large amounts of data from various sources and systems. Continuous auditing helps to provide a higher level of assurance than traditional sampling, by covering the entire population of transactions or events, rather than a subset or sample, and by identifying trends, anomalies, or exceptions that may indicate risks or issues. The other options are not features of continuous auditing that provide the best level of assurance over traditional sampling, but rather different aspects or benefits of continuous auditing, such as reporting frequency (A), reliability (B), or complexity (D).
NEW QUESTION # 56
The "recover" function of the NISI cybersecurity framework is concerned with:
- A. taking appropriate action to contain and eradicate a security incident.
- B. allocating costs incurred as part of the implementation of cybersecurity measures.
- C. identifying critical data to be recovered m case of a security incident.
- D. planning for resilience and timely repair of compromised capacities and service.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The "recover" function of the NIST cybersecurity framework is concerned with planning for resilience and timely repair of compromised capacities and service. This is because the recover function helps organizations to restore normal operations as quickly as possible after a cybersecurity incident, while also learning from the incident and improving their security posture. The other options are not part of the recover function, but rather belong to the identify (B), respond C, or protect (D) functions.
NEW QUESTION # 57
The GREATEST advantage of using a common vulnerability scoring system is that it helps with:
- A. risk elimination.
- B. risk aggregation.
- C. risk prioritization.
- D. risk quantification
Answer: C
Explanation:
The GREATEST advantage of using a common vulnerability scoring system is that it helps with risk prioritization. This is because a common vulnerability scoring system provides a standardized and consistent way of measuring and comparing the severity of vulnerabilities, based on their impact and exploitability. This allows organizations to prioritize the remediation of the most critical vulnerabilities and allocate resources accordingly. The other options are not as advantageous as using a common vulnerability scoring system, because they either involve aggregating (A), eliminating C, or quantifying (D) risk, which are not directly related to the scoring system.
NEW QUESTION # 58
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